Constitution, Preamble and Fundamental Rights — UPSC Prelims PYQs (Set 1)

Q1. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ? UPSC Prelims 2026

Question 1 optionsAEsprit de corpsBEquityCAccountabilityDDelegation
Q2. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above :
1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ? UPSC Prelims 2026

Question 2 optionsA1, 3 and 4 onlyB2, 3 and 4 onlyC1 and 2 onlyD1, 2, 3 and 4
Q3. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now ?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC Prelims 2026

Question 3 optionsA1 and 2 onlyB3 onlyC2 and 3 onlyD1, 2 and 3
Q4. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below : UPSC Prelims 2026

Question 4 optionsA‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.BThe view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.CThe views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.DThe view of only ‘Y’ is correct.
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ? UPSC Prelims 2026

Question 5 optionsAAll three statements are correct.BThere is no correct statement.CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.DThere is only one correct statement.
Q6. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct? UPSC Prelims 2025

Question 6 optionsAI and II onlyBII and III onlyCI and III onlyDI, II and III
Q7. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent? UPSC Prelims 2025

Question 7 optionsAI and II onlyBII and III onlyCI and III onlyDI, II and III
Q8. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ? UPSC Prelims 2024

Question 8 optionsAC. RajagopalachariBDr. B.R. AmbedkarCT.T. KrishnamachariDDr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Q9. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements :
1. Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? UPSC Prelims 2024

Question 9 optionsA1 onlyB2 onlyCBoth 1 and 2DNeither 1 nor 2
Q10. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?
1.
2.
3.
4. Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC Prelims 2024

Question 10 optionsA1 and 2 onlyB2 and 3 onlyC1, 2 and 3D1, 3 and 4
Q11. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : UPSC Prelims 2024

Question 11 optionsA1, 2 and 3B1, 2 and 4C1, 3 and 4D2, 3 and 4
Q12. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ?
1.
2.
3. Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below : UPSC Prelims 2024

Question 12 optionsA1 and 2 onlyB2 and 3 onlyC1 and 3 onlyD1, 2 and 3
Q13. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ? UPSC Prelims 2024

Question 13 optionsAArticle 15BArticle 16CArticle 19DArticle 21
Q14. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? UPSC Prelims 2023

Question 14 optionsAThe principle of natural justiceBThe procedure established by lawCFair application of lawDEquality before law
Q15. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country? UPSC Prelims 2023

Question 15 optionsAIt determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.BIt enables the creation of political offices and a government.CIt defines and limits the powers of government.DIt secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Q16. Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct? UPSC Prelims 2023

Question 16 optionsAOnly oneBOnly twoCAll threeDNone
Q17. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement–I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement–II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC Prelims 2023

Question 17 optionsABoth Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–IBBoth Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–ICStatement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrectDStatement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct
Q18. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
Statement–I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement–II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? UPSC Prelims 2023

Question 18 optionsABoth Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is the correct explanation for Statement–IBBoth Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II is not the correct explanation for Statement–ICStatement–I is correct but Statement–II is incorrectDStatement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is correct
Q19. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct ? UPSC Prelims 2022

Question 19 optionsA1 and 2 onlyB2 and 3 onlyC1 and 3 onlyD1, 2 and 3

0 of 19 answered

Constitution, Preamble and Fundamental Rights — UPSC Prelims PYQs (Set 1)

See your score

More Indian Polity sets